Category: Essays

Briefly describe the greatest challenge to coalition success in operation inherent resolve. Then, thoroughly explain how that challenge could be overcome through the lens of ONE of the following joint functions (Command and Control, Intelligence, Fires, Movement and Maneuver, Protection and Sustainment). Fully support and defend your answer using logic and citations of supporting material where appropriate (course material, doctrine, outside sources).

Use the order calculator below and get started! Contact our live support team for any assistance or inquiry.

[order_calculator]

Synthesis paper
Need to review, summarize, analyze, and evaluate a scholarly article entitled, The Eyewitnesses in the Gospel of Mark; by Richard Bauckham
Write a 500-600 word critical review.
The first portion of the review should consist of a summary of the authors argument and a discussion of their methodology (i.e., how they approach and organize their argument).
The second portion of the review should consist of analysis and evaluation of their argument (*Do not begin to analyze and evaluate until you have first summarized their argument and noted their methodology*).
Write in Turabian style,
NOTE: Turabian papers do NOT require a Table of Contents.

Use the order calculator below and get started! Contact our live support team for any assistance or inquiry.

[order_calculator]

There are many religions and spiritual sects in our world today. Many are infiltrating our own United States due to the immigration of different cultural and ethnic groups of unique peoples. Along with the more orthodox ritual practices, there are many alternative therapies spirituality encompasses.

Complete an internet search to find an article on one of these alternative therapies from a reputable source. For example, an article on prayer and how it is used in the nursing community to help those in spiritual distress. Write a one-page article review:

Include your opinions on how you think this complimentary method will or will not enhance the spirituality of your patient.
Be sure to include a copy, PDF, or link to of the article with your submission for your instructor to review.
Follow correct APA formatting for in-text citing and citing your reference at the end of the paper and use correct sentence structure, spelling, and punctuatio

Use the order calculator below and get started! Contact our live support team for any assistance or inquiry.

[order_calculator]

Answer each question in a paragraph of 4-6 sentences. Include one APA citation per question to support your answers.

1)Describe the developmental tasks of one age group, chosen from childhood, adolescence, young adulthood, or middle adulthood.
2)Describe three possible alterations in mental health found in that stage of life.
3)Discuss five effective nursing interventions for one of the mental health conditions you described. Include one CAM therapy and one therapeutic communication intervention.
4)What positive outcomes can be anticipated from these interventions?

Use the order calculator below and get started! Contact our live support team for any assistance or inquiry.

[order_calculator]

1. When can an employee’s religious belief qualify as a bona fide occupational qualification?

(Human Resource Dilemma)
2. In the law firm of Milton, Madden & Herman (“MM&H”), a request has been filed by two Sikhs to wear turbans. Although MM&H’s dress code does not speak to this issue, MM&H decides to prohibit this attire. How would you advise the Sikhs to proceed?

3. Johnny Carlton attended the University of Lebanon while his father was stationed in the military in that country. When Kurt Munson reviews Carlton’s application for employment, he asks Carlton why he chose to attend college there. Carlton explains. When Carlton, who is qualified for the position, is subsequently denied, he reasons that Munson’s inquiry was a determining factor. Carlton initiates a Title VII claim for national origin discrimination. Munson asserts that Carlton does not fall under that protected class. Is Carlton covered?

4. Harvey Jameson was recently terminated as comptroller at the age of 66 from Better Beef, Inc. His replacement is Tammy Parker, age 45. Because both he and his replacement are covered under the ADEA, Jameson is wondering whether he is precluded from suing.

5. Rita Hall has kidney failure and is forced to be on dialysis three times a week. She is a financial analyst for Bull and Bear. She is asking for three afternoons off each week. Hall is offering to work late two days and on Saturdays to make up the remaining time off. She does not believe this will adversely affect her duties. Bull and Bear refuses, claiming it is disruptive to the work environment. How would you advise Hall to proceed?

Use the order calculator below and get started! Contact our live support team for any assistance or inquiry.

[order_calculator]

Section 1: Multiple Choice and True/False
This part of your examination is worth 100 points and consists of 100 Multiple Choice questions and 100 True/False questions
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Stressing the body the way you want it to change and improve is an example of
Reversibility.
Individual differences.
Specific training.
Overload principle.
Hypertrophy.
2. VO2max is the
Symbol meaning maximal oxygen consumption.
Symbol meaning maximum sprinting velocity in activities using oxygen.
Rate of a chemical reaction.
Best measure of strength fitness.
Measure of flexibility.
3. Which of the following is not an effective way to develop aerobic capacity?
Choose a large muscle exercise, such as running or cycling, that stresses the cardiovascular system.
Train below 45% of maximum effort.
Exercise for at least 20 minutes.
Train 3 to 5 days per week.
Train at 55% to 90% of maximum heart rate.
4. Which is true?
Exercise increases blood levels of HDL.
Exercise increases the risk of diabetes.
Exercise decreases the risk of skin cancer.
Exercise increases blood levels of cholesterol.
Exercise increases the risk of stroke.
5. The US Surgeon General’s report on exercise stated that people of all ages should do at least ______ minutes of physical activity of moderate intensity every day.
60
10
45
30
50
6. What percentage of US adults do not meet the minimum exercise recommendations of the US Surgeon General?
10%
24%
40%
60%
80%
7. People in the National Weight Registry, composed of people who lost 60 pounds and kept it off for at least 5 years:
Exercise an average of 30 minutes per day, 3 times per week
Exercise an average of 60 minutes per day, 7 days a week
Don’t exercise; they cut calories
Eat an average of 1000 calories a day
Exercise for 20 minutes, 3 times per week
8. Which of the following produces red blood cells?
Kidneys
Spleen
Heart
Bone marrow
Epiphyses
9. Spongy bone is also known as
Compact bone.
Cancellous bone.
Cortical bone.
The myocardium.
The periosteum.
10. The shaft of a long bone is called the
Epiphysis
Diaphysis
Periostium.
Trabiculum
Marrow
11. Which of the following is the breast bone?
Humerus
Femur
Radius
Ulna
Sternum
12. Which of the following is a bone in the forearm?
Ulna
Humerus
Fibula
Scapula
Metacarpals
13. Which of the following is the kneecap?
Patella
Tibia
Fibula
Ileum
Femur
14. Skeletal structures that serve as interfaces or connections between bones are
Ligaments.
Muscles.
Tendons.
Joints.
Connective tissue.
15. The temporary cartilaginous junction between the metaphysis and epiphysis that disappears after growth ceases.
Metaepiphysis
Synchondroses
Symphysis pubis
Fibrocartilage
None of these
16. Which of the following lubricates and protects the joints?
Synovial fluid
Blood
Lymph
Extracellular fluid
Plasma
17. The elbow joint is an example of a
Hinge joint.
Pivot joint.
Bicondylar joint.
Ellipsoid joint.
Sellar joint.
18. The hip joint is an example of a
Spheroidal joint.
Hinge joint.
Pivot joint.
Bicondylar joint.
Ellipsoid joint.
19. Synovitis is know as
Tendonitis.
Fracture.
Synovial joint inflammation.
Contamination of synovial fluid.
Low levels of synovial fluid.
20. Flattened sacs of synovial membrane supported by dense irregular connective tissue.
Meniscus
Periostium
Tendon
Ligament
Bursa
21. Rotating force about the fulcrum is called
The moment of the force.
Load.
Resistance.
Antagonist.
None of these
22. This lever is best described as a teeter-totter.
First class lever
Second class lever
Third class lever
Fourth class lever
None of these
23. A wheelbarrow is a good example of this lever.
First class lever
Second class lever
Third class lever
Fourth class lever
None of these
24. This lever works like a piston in an engine.
First class lever
Second class lever
Third class lever
Fourth class lever
None of these
25. Which of the following is not a type of fiber arrangement in skeletal muscle?
Parallel
Fusiform
Pennate
Triangular
Perpendicular
26. The main muscle causing movement is know as the
Prime mover.
Antagonist.
Synergist.
Stabilizer.
All of the above
27. The attachment of the muscle to the movable bone.
Origin
Insertion
Fulcrum
Point of force
Antagonist
28. Which muscle abducts the shoulder?
Rectus femoris
Gastrocnemius
Deltoid
Rectus abdominus
None of these
29. Which muscle extends the shoulder?
Pectoralis major
Rectus femoris
Latissimus dorsi
Infraspinatus
Supraspinatus
30. Which of the following is not one of the shoulder rotor cuff muscles?
Infraspinatus
Supraspinatus
Deltoid
Teres minor
Subscapularis
31. Which of the following is largest muscle in the chest and shoulder?
Deltoid
Pectoralis major
Rhomboid major
Pectoralis minor
Biceps brachius
32. What is the principle muscle used when doing a shoulder shrug exercise?
Trapezius
Pectoralis major
Biceps
Triceps
None of these
33. This muscle develops the most from performing bench press exercise.
Biceps brachius
Rectus abdominus
Rectus femoris
Pectoralis major
Gluteus maximus
34. Which muscle causes flexion of the elbow?
Pectoralis major
Trapezius
Latissimus dorsi
Triceps
Biceps Brachius
35. What muscle acts as the antagonist during elbow flexion?
Triceps
Pectoralis major
Brachioradialis
Trapezius
Latissimus dorsi
36. The adductor longus causes
Adduction of the arm.
Adduction of the head.
Adduction of the thumb.
Adduction of the hip.
None of these
37. The biceps femoris muscle is part of which muscle group?
Quadriceps
Abdominal
Chest
Hamstrings
Upper arm
38. Parallel squats are good for developing this muscle.
Gluteus maximus
Biceps brachius
Latissimus dorsi
Rhomboids
Triceps brachius
39. Which of the following is a powerful hip flexor muscle?
Gluteus maximus
Rectus abdominus
Biceps brachius
Biceps femoris
Psoas Major
40. Which of the following is a powerful calf muscle?
Vastus medialis
Vastus lateralis
Gastrocnemius
Biceps femoris
Tibialis anterior
41. The chemical process involving synthesis is
Catabolic.
Atrophy.
Thermogenesis.
Anabolic.
Menarche.
42. Adenosine triphosphate is
A carbohydrate.
A chemical found in all living cells that serves as an energy source for many metabolic processes.
Not important in metabolism.
Only produced when oxygen is present.
Used to regenerate creatine phosphate.
43. An important immediate energy storage chemical the body uses to regenerate ATP is
Fatty acids.
Glycogen.
Cholesterol.
Creatine phosphate.
Oxygen.
44. Which athlete would rely most on the nonoxidative energy system?
Distance runner
400-meter runner
Long distance swimmer
Tour de France cyclist
Person walking 3-miles
45. Mitochondria are
Responsible for energy production and cellular respiration.
Not found in muscle.
High levels found in fast-twitch muscles.
Higher in shot-putters than in distance runners.
Muscle growth.
46. Storage form of carbohydrates:
Glucose
Glycogen
Amino acids
Proteins
Fats
47. Building blocks of proteins:
Fats
Carbohydrates
Glycogen
Glucose
Amino acids
48. Involves repeated bouts of high intensity exercises:
Long, slow distance training
Overdistance training
Interval training
Walking
None of these
49. Ventilation is the
Increase in heart rate.
Movement of air in and out of the lungs.
Oxygen consumption in the cells.
Body composition technique.
Diffusion of oxygen from lungs to blood.
50. Dyspnea is
Increased heart rate.
Increase in muscle size.
Increase in number of muscle cells.
Distressed breathing.
Inadequate insulin.
51. The volume of each breath is know as
FEV1.
Maximum voluntary ventilation.
Residual lung volume.
Tidal volume.
Expiratory reserve volume.
52. Every gram of hemoglobin binds with this much oxygen:
1.2 liters
1.34 ml
2.5 ml
5 ml
2.2 liters
53. Which of the following is the most important way that the body transports CO2?
Dissolved in blood
Bound to hemoglobin
Bicarbonate buffer system
Myoglobin
None of these
54. The increase in the internal diameter of a blood vessel that increases blood flow is called
Hypertrophy.
Menarche.
Angina.
Vasodilation.
Vasoconstriction.
55. Amount of blood the heart pumps per minute is known as the
Cardiac output.
Heart rate.
Stroke volume.
Residual volume.
Maximal oxygen consumption.
56. The active or pumping phase of the cardiac cycle:
Diastolic (Diastole)
Heart rate
Stroke volume
Cardiac output
Systolic (Systole)
57. The hormone released from stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system:
Testosterone
Insulin
Glucagon
Estrogen
Norepinephrine
58. In prolonged exercise, the heart rate increases steadily at the same work rate is known as
Futile cycling.
Metabolic inefficiency.
Cardiovascular drift.
Anaerobic threshold.
Oxygen debt.
59. Blood pressure is determined by cardiac output and
The tissues’ resistance to blood flow (peripheral resistance).
Stroke volume.
Oxygen consumption.
Heart rate.
Ventilation.
60. Slender threads in a muscle fiber that run parallel with the long axis of the fiber are
Mitochondria.
Nucleus.
Myofibrils.
Z-lines.
Myocytes.
61. This is composed of a single motor nerve and the group of muscle fibers it supplies.
Myofibrils
Myofilaments
Motor unit
Motor endplate
Sarcomere
62. Small cellular structures involved in protein synthesis that are composed of specialized ribosomal RNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA).
Sarcomeres
Muscle cells
Satellite cells
Ribosomes
Motor units
63. Delayed onset muscle soreness is caused by
Lactic acid buildup in muscle.
Lactic acid buildup in blood.
Fluid accumulation inside the cells.
Tissue injury.
Inadequate cardiac output.
64. The body’s temperature regulation center:
Cerebellum
Heart
Medulla oblongata
Hypothalamus
Pancreas
65. Heat loss or gain in the form of infrared rays is know as
Radiation.
Conduction.
Convection.
Wind-chill.
Evaporation.
66. Causes “goose bumps”:
Sweating center
Pancreas
Pilomotor center
SA node
Cerebellum
67. Physiological adaptation to an environmental stressor is
Acclimation.
Habituation.
Hypertrophy.
Acclimatization.
Menarche.
68. Symptoms may include increased body temperature, lack of sweating (50% of victims continue to sweat), hot dry skin, and neurological symptoms.
Heat exhaustion
Hypoxia
Frostbite
Heat stroke
Anorexia
69. Relates body weight to height squared:
Percent body fat
Sum of seven skinfolds
Acclimatization
Acclimation
Body mass index
70. Special X-ray technique that uses a computer to assimilate multiple X-ray images into a 2-dimensional cross-sectional image.
DEXA
Computed tomography (CT)
Angiography
Indirect calorimetry
Anthropometry
71. The underwater weighing procedure directly measures
Body density.
Body fat.
Lean body mass.
Body weight.
Residual lung volume.
72. Which of the following is not a cause of weight gain?
Cushing’s disease
Hypothyroidism
Stopping smoking
Excessive exercise
Growth hormone deficiency
73. Which of the following is not a health risk of obesity?
Insulin Resistance
Abnormal blood fats (Dyslipidemia)
Low blood pressure (hypotension)
Syndrome X
Type 2 Diabetes
74. This test is the best measure of strength:
1-RM lifting tests
Push-ups
Jump-reach
Standing long jump
Sit and reach test
75. The method to predict 1-RM from max repetitions on a lift:
Brzycki equation
Multiply pounds lifted by the number of reps
Divide pounds lifted by the number of reps
Multiply pounds lifted by the number of reps, squared
Cannot be done
76. Who was the first to propose the principle of specificity?
AV Hill
Franklin Henry
August Krogh
Rudolfo Margaria
DB Dill
77. This equation best predicts the oxygen consumption of walking on level ground:
VO2 (ml?kg-1?min)= [Speed ? 0.1] + 3.5
VO2 (ml?kg-1?min) = [Speed ? 0.1] + 300
VO2 (ml?kg-1?min) = [Speed ? 0.2] + 3.5
VO2 (ml?kg-1?min) = [Speed ? 0.2] + 300
None of these
78. This equation best predicts the oxygen consumption of running on level ground:
VO2 (ml?kg-1?min) = [Speed ? 0.1] + 3.5
VO2 (ml?kg-1?min) = [Speed ? 0.2] + 3.5
VO2 (ml?kg-1?min) = [Speed ? 0.1] + 300
VO2 (ml?kg-1?min) = [Speed ? 1.0] + 3.5
VO2 (ml?kg-1?min) = [Speed ? 1.0] + 300
79. This equation best predicts oxygen consumption on a cycle ergometer:
VO2 (ml?kg-1?min) = [Power output (kgm?min-1) x 3.0] + (300 x weight (kg))
VO2 (ml?kg-1?min) = [Power output (kgm?min-1) x 2.0] + (3.5 x weight (kg))
VO2 (ml?kg-1?min) = [Power output (kgm?min-1) x 2.0] + (300 x weight (kg))
VO2 (ml?kg-1?min) = [Power output (kgm?min-1) x 5.0] + (300 x weight (kg))
VO2 (ml?kg-1?min) = [Power output (kgm?min-1) x 5.0] + (3.5 x weight (kg))
80. Which of the following is the best exercise combination for power athletes?
Curls, bench press, leg press
Curls, wrist curls, bench press
Presses, pulls, squats
Bench press, curls, sit-ups, twists
Triceps curls, wrist curls, back hyperextensions
81. Including swimming and running in a training program is an example of
Progressive overload.
Cross training.
Interval training.
Periodization.
Specificity.
82. Selye called the principle of stress adaptation:
The General Adaptation Syndrome
The Overload Principle
Principle of Hypertrophy
Principle of Individual Differences
None of these
83. Differences among people to perform and learn sports skills is known as
Individual differences.
General Adaptation Syndrome.
Overload principle.
Principle of Reversibility.
None of these
84. Which of the following measures endurance fitness?
Rockport Walking Test
1-mile run
Cooper 12-minute run
1.5-mile runs
All of the above
85. Improvements in endurance capacity occur when you train above what minimum percentage of maximum capacity (maximal oxygen consumption, .VO2max)?
25%
35%
50%
65%
90%
86. Which is the principle muscle developed during dumbbell lateral raises?
Anterior deltoid
Pectoralis major
Mid deltoid
Triceps
Posterior deltoid
87. Of the following exercises, which is not an exercise for the legs?
Dips
Lunge
Phantom chair
Leg press
Squat
88. Describe the movement during a dumbbell lateral raise.
Shoulder abduction
Biceps flexion
Shoulder adduction
Shoulder extension
Shoulder horizontal flexion
89. Which exercise does not develop the pectoralis major muscle?
Bench press
Barbell incline
Dumbbell incline
Dumbbell curls
Incline dumbbell flys
90. Which is not a muscle of the shoulder rotator cuff?
Supraspinatus
Teres minor
Infraspinatus
Subscapularis
Deltoid
91. What is the principle muscle developed during dumbbell internal rotation exercise?
Pectoralis major
Subscapularis
Biceps brachius
Teres major
Supraspinatus
92. Which is a good exercise to develop the supraspinatus muscle?
Bench press
Incline barbell press
Side-bridge
Empty can exercise
Dumbbell flys
93. To best develop the triceps brachii, which of the following exercises would you use?
Dumbbell curls
Standing barbell curls
French curls
Preacher curls
Reverse curls
94. Which muscle gives the abdomen a “six-pack” appearance?
Rectus abdominis
Internal obliques
External obliques
Transversus abdominis
Quadratus lumborum
95. The side-bridge exercise is a good choice for developing which muscle?
Rectus abdominis
Transversus abdominis
Quadratus lumborum
None of the above
All of the above
96. Which of the following muscles is not part of the abdominal group?
External obliques
Internal obliques
Sagittal abdominis
Rectus abdominis
Transversus abdominis
97. Which exercise would best develop the rhomboids?
Bench press
Seated rows
Curl-ups
Pull-ups
Hanging leg raises
98. Which exercise best develops the latissiumus dorsi?
Bench press
Seated rows
Biceps curls
Pull-ups
Squats
99. Which exercise best develops the trapezius?
Bench press
Seated rows
Shoulder shug
Pull-ups
Squats
100. Identify the exercise device that includes a barbell attached to a moveable track supported by a large steel frame.
Smith machine
Power rack
Squat rack
Calf machine
Pullover machine
True/False Questions
101. The Periosteum is the membrane of fibrous connective tissue.
True
False
102. Fibroblasts are connective tissue cells which change into cells that make cartilage, collagen, and bone cells.
True
False
103. Cancellous bone is the compact portion of bone.
True
False
104. Osteoid is uncalcified bone consisting mainly of collagen.
True
False
105. An articular surface is a bone surface that makes contact with a ligament.
True
False
106. Lymphatics are small thin channels that collect and carry tissue fluid in the body.
True
False
107. Flexion is movement of a joint that results in an increased angle between two adjacent segments (bones).
True
False
108. Dorsiflexion is movement of the foot toward its lower surface.
True
False
109. Plantar flexion is movement of the foot toward its lower surface.
True
False
110. Extension is return from flexion; movement of a joint that results in an increased angle between two adjacent segments.
True
False
111. Adduction is lateral movement of a body segment toward the midline of the body.
True
False
112. Rotation is movement of a body segment around its longitudinal axis.
True
False
113. Pronation is outward rotation of the forearm.
True
False
114. Radiation is the transfer of heat from the body to an object.
True
False
115. The body loses 0.58 kcal of heat for each gram of sweat that evaporates.
True
False
116. Metabolism is the sum of all the physical and chemical processes occurring in the body- including anabolic and catabolic reactions.
True
False
117. A water deficit of 100 ml will cause thirst.
True
False
118. Supination is outward rotation of the forearm.
True
False
119. The rectus femoris flexes the hip.
True
False
120. Balance is the ability to remain steady and under control from a moving or stationary base.
True
False
121. Mitochondria are small structures in the cells responsible for energy production and cellular respiration.
True
False
122. Hypertension is low blood pressure.
True
False
123. Type 2 diabetes is more common in children than in adults.
True
False
124. Osteoporosis is a reduction in the amount of muscle mass, leading to fractures after minimal trauma.
True
False
125. Motor nerves are the nerves that activate muscle fibers.
True
False
126. Power cleans: An exercise where the athlete lifts the bar from the floor to his or her chest.
True
False
127. The vastus lateralis helps extend the knee.
True
False
128. Antagonists are muscles that oppose a movement.
True
False
129. The origin is the attachment of a muscle to the stationary bone.
True
False
130. Power is work per unit of time. Practically defined as the ability to exert force rapidly.
True
False
131. Fats are a type of food where hydrogen and oxygen are usually in the proportion to form water. Examples include large starches, glycogens, celluloses, and gums.
True
False
132. Glycogen is an important carbohydrate storage chemical made up of glucose units that is found mainly in the liver and muscle.
True
False
133. Alveoli are capillaries in the lung where gas exchange occurs.
True
False
134. Abduction is lateral movement of a body segment toward the midline of the body.
True
False
135. The gastrocnemius helps flex the elbow.
True
False
136. The longissimus dorsi is an important spinal muscle.
True
False
137. Acid-base balance is a chemical process by which the body tries to keep pH within a narrow range.
True
False
138. Stroke volume is the volume of blood-expressed in liters-pumped by the heart per minute.
True
False
139. Lactic acid is an intermediate product of carbohydrate metabolism and is derived mainly from muscle cells and red blood cells.
True
False
140. Carbon dioxide is a gas making up approximately 21% of the atmosphere that is essential for cell respiration- energy producing reactions in the cells.
True
False
141. Over distance training is a training overload technique that involves a series of intense exercises followed by rest or light exercise.
True
False
142. Insulin resistance is a condition where the body produces enough insulin but the insulin receptors do not respond to its action.
True
False
143. Low-intensity, repetitive exercise prepares your body to withstand more intensive training with less risk of injury.
True
False
144. Heart rate monitors do not accurately measure exercise heart rates.
True
False
145. You can obtain a good estimate of exercise heart rate by taking the pulse rate for 60 seconds immediately after your client stops exercising.
True
False
146. Over-distance training increases the mitochondria in the cells, which increases the metabolic capacity.
True
False
147. The four components of interval training are distance, repetitions, intensity, and heart rate.
True
False
148. Diffusion is movement of a gas or substance from a high concentration to a lower concentration.
True
False
149. Vasoconstriction is the decrease in the internal diameter of a blood vessel that decreases blood flow.
True
False
150. Plasma volume is the non-cellular part of blood.
True
False
151. Mean arterial pressure is 1/4 of systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure.
True
False
152. Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number.
True
False
153. Strength development must consider muscle cell hypertrophy, neuromuscular activation, elastic energy, and skill.
True
False
154. Elasticity is the capacity of a tissue or substance to recover its former structure, after the removal of external pressure or altering force.
True
False
155. Motor unit recruitment is increasing the amount of force by the motor unit when it is activated.
True
False
156. Research on most high-power sports shows that athletes benefit more from improvements in strength than through improvements in skill.
True
False
157. Thirst does not keep up with the fluid requirements.
True
False
158. The primary cause of heat cramps is sodium and potassium depletion.
True
False
159. One of the best way prevent heat injury is to insure that athletes are in good physical condition.
True
False
160. The metabolic syndrome, also known as Syndrome X, is characterized by high insulin levels (hyperinsulinemia) and insulin resistance.
True
False
161. Exercise improves insulin sensitivity by increasing glucose transporters (i.e., GLUT4), oxidative enzymes, and muscle blood flow and by reducing abdominal fat
True
False
162. Only about 25% of people who lose a significant amount of weight keep it off for more than a year.
True
False
163. The only drugs approved in the United States for weight loss are orlistat (Xenical) and sibutramine (Meridian).
True
False
164. Test girls for speed using modified push-ups.
True
False
165. The National Football League uses the number of reps completed on the bench with 225 as one of its basic fitness tests.
True
False
166. The YMCA’s bench press test is valuable because it has published norms, but it is less valuable for assessing strength because it involves too few repetitions.
True
False
167. Most exercise experts recommend curl-ups rather than sit-ups for strengthening abdominal muscles.
True
False
168. The Wingate test is a well-established procedure for measuring power output on a treadmill.
True
False
169. The power Quadrathlon includes the standing long jump, three jumps, 30-meter sprint, and overhead shot throw.
True
False
170. The Rockport test is a walking test that predicts maximal oxygen consumption.
True
False
171. The NFL combine tests include the 20-yard shuttle run and the 3-cone test.
True
False
172. When learning a new skill, the quality of performance varies according to the complexity and predictability of the skill.
True
False
173. The strategy for improving performance and power in sports is to have a wide variety of movement experiences (skills in running, jumping, throwing, etc.) and develop sports specific automatic movements.
True
False
174. During growth, the physical characteristics of the athlete changes so quickly that it is easy for the brain to precisely control motor performance.
True
False
175. During practice emphasize and promote correct movements and eliminate incorrect movements from the performance.
True
False
176. Practicing the elements of a complex skill-then integrating it into a full, fluid technique-is a bad strategy for learning sports skills.
True
False
177. Practicing the parts of a movement is never the same as doing the entire motion at full speed.
True
False
178. The watt is the standard scientific unit for energy.
True
False
179. An arm ergometer is an upper body cycling ergometer used to measure upper body fitness.
True
False
180. Calorimetry is the measurement of heat. It is used to estimate metabolism by measuring heat loss or oxygen consumption.
True
False
181. The very best athletes (top 1%) during school years tend to be the top athletes in college and beyond.
True
False
182. If you want to develop fitness for a high power sport, choose a well-rounded program that concentrates on the major muscle groups.
True
False
183. If you lift weights, you can become a better football player, discus thrower, skier, or swimmer without practicing the sport.
True
False
184. Improved fitness and rapid growth in children can sometimes temporarily decrease performance.
True
False
185. First-year track and field athletes should set a goal of being Olympic champions.
True
False
186. Teach athletes to write down their goals and methods of achieving them.
True
False
187. Great athletes are made during the off-season.
True
False
188. In general, the more intense the exercise, the more the repetitions, the less rest required.
True
False
189. An example of interval training for tennis is to hit against a wall or tennis ball machine for 2 minutes, rest one minute, then repeat.
True
False
190. Women induce large changes in breast size by doing bench presses and incline presses.
True
False
191. Bench pressing with your elbows in places too much strain on your shoulders and reduces power.
True
False
192. Chains and bands increase the resistance at the end of the lift’s range of motion.
True
False
193. Curl bars are useful because they reduce stress on the forearm muscles.
True
False
194. The power snatch develops the trapezius muscle.
True
False
195. The bird-dog exercise strengthens the low-back muscles to better maintain spinal stabilization and alignment.
True
False
196. The basic athletic position includes straight legs and a high center of gravity with hands in front.
True
False
197. Lifting belts and wraps increase the weight you can squat.
True
False
198. You should use your hip extensors to pull yourself down into the squat.
True
False
199. The Valsalva causes large increases in blood pressure but increases pressure in the abdomen to stabilize the spine during the squat so you can lift more weight.
True
False
200. Blood pressure has been measured as high as 480/350 mm Hg during heavy squats.
True
False

Use the order calculator below and get started! Contact our live support team for any assistance or inquiry.

[order_calculator]

Create a presentation of 12-15 slides, discussing technology in the classroom. The content of the presentation should cover the following material:

Discuss types of technology in schools and how the use of technology helps manage and enhance student engagement in a classroom.
Discuss why establishing classroom expectations and procedures are necessary when using technology. What happens when the procedures are not followed?
Discuss the availability of technology in schools in your area. Are the students in your area receiving sufficient technology education? If not, why not?
Cite and reference 2-3 scholarly articles.

The presentation should use *** graphics, ***transitions and/or ***special effects. Include ***presenter’s notes, ***a title slide, and ***in-text citations within your presentation.

Use the order calculator below and get started! Contact our live support team for any assistance or inquiry.

[order_calculator]

Choose two concerns from the list below to research as they relate to educating students with ASD.

Possible areas of concern are:

Legal issues
Parental concerns (for the non-parent interviewees)
Curriculum
Faculty, paraeducator, and administrator training
Faculty and paraeducator staffing
Create a 10-15 slide PowerPoint presentation for a faculty in-service that describes the concerns related to educating students with ASD. Develop research-based recommendations for possible solutions to the concerns. Include ethical and current issues related to the areas you chose. Recommendations for possible solutions may be your own or based upon information supported by research.

Within your presentation, include a title slide, a reference slide, and presenter’s notes. Support your findings with a minimum of 3-5 scholarly resources.

Use the order calculator below and get started! Contact our live support team for any assistance or inquiry.

[order_calculator]

Answer each of the following 8 questions, in 1-2 paragraphs each
1. What must a person who is claiming they were harassed in the workplace allege in order to first state a case with the EEOC for each of the following types of harassment:
I. Sexual harassment – quid pro quo
II. Sexual harassment – hostile environment
III. Religious harassment
IV. Racial harassment
2. Explain the difference between sexual harassment, gender discrimination, and sexual orientation discrimination, as those terms are used legally.
3. How does GINA protect a person whose mother died of breast cancer from employment discrimination?
4. Provide one example of a behavior that could be found to be both a hostile environment and quid pro quo forms of sexual harassment at the same time. Explain how a person could argue that this behavior at work was illegal.
5. Give the main legal reason why every company should have a valid written policy against all forms of harassment (besides the fact it is the “right” thing to do.)
6. Can an employer require that only females serve female customers and only males serve male customers? Explain your answer using legal terms.
7. How many employees must an employer or company have working for it to be subject to:
I. the ADA
II. Pregnancy Discrimination Act
III. Title VII
IV. IRCA
V. GINA
8. Assume you work for a company that has a sexual anti-harassment policy, but not a religious, sexual orientation, or racial anti-harassment policy. Write a one-two paragraph statement to your boss (the HR Director), as to why you believe it would make sense to revamp the policy to include other forms of harassment. Include one example of a real situation where a policy may have protected a company from liability or stopped harassment from happening. (You will find case examples on the EEOC website). Cite that case/situation in your memo to your boss. Provide the amount of damages/fines the company in your example case had to pay as a result of failing to protect an employee from discrimination.

Use the order calculator below and get started! Contact our live support team for any assistance or inquiry.

[order_calculator]

Know the development of global, European and national policies relating to sustainability; understand the commercial case for considering social and environmental matters in business management; understand that it may be necessary to reconcile the sometimes conflicting expectations of stakeholders with respect to social and environmental issues and understand how businesses can manage their environmental and social performance.

Scenario
You work for an organisation and have been asked to produce four background papers that can be used as resource material for the organisation’s Management Training Programme. Details of each paper are as follows:

Paper 1
Outline how humans impact on the environment, the growth of the environmental movement and Global, European and National policies relating to sustainability since 1992 (include in your answer the Brundtland definition of ‘sustainable development’ and a description of ‘the triple bottom line’ approach to sustainable development) (750-1 250 words).

Paper 2
Outline in general terms the commercial case for considering social and environmental matters in terms of marketing, cost savings, legal compliance and gaining a competitive advantage. For your chosen organisation identify specific policies/actions that show its recognition of the need to consider such matters (750-1 250 words).

Paper 3
Discuss the conflicting expectations of stakeholders regarding social and environmental issues with reference to customers, shareholders and pressure groups. For your chosen organisation identify any conflicts that have or may arise in this area (750-1 250 words).

Paper 4
Outline in general terms how organisations can manage their environmental and social performance through peer guidance, management commitment, environmental management and Environmental Life Cycle Assessment and Environmental Labelling. For your chosen organisation identify how it manages its environmental and social performance (750-1250 words).

The chosen organisation will be MARKS AND SPENCER.

PLEASE MAKE SURE THERE ARE REFERENCES THAT ARE PUBLISHED FROM THE UK ALSO.

ROUGH GUIDELINE FOR WORD COUNT CAN BE SEEN ABOVE.

Use the order calculator below and get started! Contact our live support team for any assistance or inquiry.

[order_calculator]