Resource: Principles of Managerial Finance
Prepare responses to the following problems from the text:
Ch. 14: P14–9, P14–16
Ch. 15: P15–9
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Lesson Plan Components Table
Resource: University of Phoenix Material: Lesson Plan Components Table
Locate three new lesson plans, each from a different content area, on the Internet or from a published source.
Complete the University of Phoenix Material: Lesson Plan Components Table by describing the lesson components, the components you feel are lacking, the learning styles addressed, the instructional strategies used in each lesson, and the purpose of each strategy.
Write a 350- to 700-word reflection on the quality of the lesson plan and its components.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Submit a Certification of Originality
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[order_calculator]Tutorial is based on Option 2
Choose one of the following assignment options to complete:
Option 1: Data Governance, Quality, Integration, and Security in My Organization
Review data management and information security practices where you work or at an organization with which you are familiar.
Recommend three specific policy changes to improve data governance, quality, integration, and security.
Support each recommendation with evidence from at least two scholarly or trade publications.
Format your recommendations consistent with APA guidelines.
DBM 502 WEEK 5 INDIVIDUAL ASSIGNMENT
DBM 502 WEEK 5 INDIVIDUAL ASSIGNMENT
DBM 502 WEEK 5 INDIVIDUAL ASSIGNMENT
DBM 502 WEEK 5 INDIVIDUAL ASSIGNMENT
Option 2: Mountain View Community Hospital Case Study
Review the Case sections of Ch. 10 and Ch. 11 in Modern Database Management.
Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper analyzing the data governance, quality, integration, and security at Mountain View Community Hospital.
Address the strengths and opportunities for improvement in data management and security. Support your arguments with evidence from scholarly or trade publications.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines
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[order_calculator]ACC 291 ACC/291 Final Exam Solution 100% Correct Answer
1) Hahn Company uses the percentage of sales method for recording bad debts expense. For the year, cash sales are $300,000 and credit sales are $1,200,000. Management estimates that 1% is the sales percentage to use. acc 291 final exam. What adjusting entry will Hahn Company make to record the bad debts expense?
2) Using the percentage of receivables method for recording bad debts expense, estimated uncollectible accounts are $15,000. acc 291 final exam. If the balance of the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is $3,000 credit before adjustment, what is the amount of bad debts expense for that period?
3) Intangible assets
4) Intangible assets are the rights and privileges that result from ownership of long-lived assets that
5) The book value of an asset is equal to the
6) Gains on an exchange of plant assets that has commercial substance are
7) Ordinary repairs are expenditures to maintain the operating efficiency of a plant asset and are referred to as
8) Costs incurred to increase the operating efficiency or useful life of a plant asset are referred to as
9) When an interest-bearing note matures, the balance in the Notes Payable account is
10) The interest charged on a $200,000 note payable, at a rate of 6%, on a 2-month note would be
11) If a corporation issued $3,000,000 in bonds which pay 10% annual interest, what is the annual net cash cost of this borrowing if the income tax rate is 30%?
12) Hilton Company issued a four-year interest-bearing note payable for $300,000 on January 1, 2011. acc 291 final exam. Each January the company is required to pay $75,000 on the note. How will this note be reported on the December 31, 2012 balance sheet?
13) A corporation issued $600,000, 10%, 5-year bonds on January 1, 2011 for 648,666, which reflects an effective-interest rate of 8%. Interest is paid semiannually on January 1 and July 1. acc 291 final exam. If the corporation uses the effective-interest method of amortization of bond premium, the amount of bond interest expense to be recognized on July 1, 2011, is
14) When the effective-interest method of bond discount amortization is used
15) If a corporation has only one class of stock, it is referred to as
16) Capital stock to which the charter has assigned a value per share is called
17) ABC, Inc. has 1,000 shares of 5%, $100 par value, cumulative preferred stock and 50,000 shares of $1 par value common stock outstanding at December 31, 2011. acc 291 final exam. What is the annual dividend on the preferred stock?
18) Manner, Inc. has 5,000 shares of 5%, $100 par value, noncumulative preferred stock and 20,000 shares of $1 par value common stock outstanding at December 31, 2011. acc 291 final exam. There were no dividends declared in 2010. acc 291 final exam. The board of directors declares and pays a $45,000 dividend in 2011. What is the amount of dividends received by the common stockholders in 2011?
19) When the selling price of treasury stock is greater than its cost, the company credits the difference to
20) The purchase of treasury stock
21) Marsh Company has other operating expenses of $240,000. There has been an increase in prepaid expenses of $16,000 during the year, and accrued liabilities are $24,000 lower than in the prior period. acc 291 final exam. Using the direct method of reporting cash flows from operating activities, acc 291 final exam what were Marsh’s cash payments for operating expenses?
22) Where would the event purchased land for cash appear, if at all, on the indirect statement of cash flows?
23) In performing a vertical analysis, the base for cost of goods sold is
24) Blanco, Inc. has the following income statement (in millions):
BLANCO, INC.
Income Statement
For the Year Ended December 31, 2011
Net Sales ………………………… $200
Cost of Goods Sold ………………………… 120
Gross Profit ………………………… 80
Operating Expenses ………………………… 44
Net Income ………………………… $ 36
Using vertical analysis, what percentage is assigned to Net Income?
25) Dawson Company issued 500 shares of no-par common stock for $4,500. acc 291 final exam, Which of the following journal entries would be made if the stock has a stated value of $2 per share?
26) Andrews, Inc. paid $45,000 to buy back 9,000 shares of its $1 par value common stock. This stock was sold later at a selling price of $6 per share. acc291 final exam. The entry to record the sale includes a
27) Which of the following is a fundamental factor in having an effective, ethical corporate culture?
28) Two individuals at a retail store work the same cash register. You evaluate this situation as
29) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act imposed which new penalty for executives?
30) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires that all publicly traded companies maintain a system of internal controls. Internal controls can be defined as a plan to
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[order_calculator]PSY355 Individual Sources of Motivation Paper Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper in which you examine the concept of motivation. Address the following items: · Define motivation. · Identify at least two sources of motivation. · Explain the relationship between motivation and behavior. · Examine how behavior exhibits motivation. Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
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[order_calculator]Tax deductions often reflect social policy, and the belief that taxpayers having a wherewithal to pay should receive a less favorable tax treatment than those who do not. How is this policy reflected in the different categories of itemized deductions and in the treatment of itemized deduction in total? Do you agree with this policy? Why or why not?
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[order_calculator]One problem with using negative values for the proportion invested in the riskless asset to represent a borrowed amount is that the implied borrowing rate of interest is the same as the __________.
a) prime rate of interest
b) current rate of interest
c) lending rate of interest
d) nominal rate of interest
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[order_calculator]A. Lab # : BSBA BIS245A-2
B. Lab 2 of 7 : Skills Development in Visio; Creation of MS Access Database
C. Lab Overview–Scenario / Summary:
TCOs:
1. Given a business situation in which managers require information from a database, determine, analyze, and classify that information so that reports can be designed to meet the requirements.
2. Given a situation containing entities, business rules, and data requirements, create the conceptual model of the database using a database modeling tool.
3. Given an existing relational database schema, evaluate and alter the database design for efficiency.
4. Given an existing database structure demonstrating efficiency and integrity, design the physical tables.
Scenario:
You have been asked to create a conceptual database model using MS Visio Database Model Diagram Template. The purpose of this lab is to have you gain experience with the various modeling tools needed to create a conceptual model (entity relationship diagram) of a database. You will then modify the model for implementation as a MS Access database. You will create and modify one conceptual model.
You will then create a MS Access database based on the model developed in Visio, creating the necessary tables and relationships.
Upon completing this lab, you will be able to
1. relying on detailed instructions, add two entities to the existing conceptual model (ERD), including attribute data types and required field lengths;
2. create a new MS Access database file;
3. using the model from Parts A and B of the lab, and relying on detailed instructions; create the first two tables in the database;
4. use the experience gained in creating the first two tables to add the remaining tables;
5. using the model from Parts A and B of the lab, and relying on detailed instructions; create the relationship between the first two tables in the database; and
6. use the experience gained in creating the first relationship to create the remaining relationships between the tables.
BIS/245A BIS245A BIS-245A BIS245 A BIS 245 A
BIS/245B BIS245B BIS-245B BIS245 B BIS 245 B
BIS/245C BIS245C BIS-245C BIS245 C BIS 245 C
BIS/245D BIS245D BIS-245D BIS245 D BIS 245 D
Lab2 Lab 2 Week 2 Week2 Week2 Lab iLab2 iLab 2
–iqrajavaid
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[order_calculator]RES 351 RES351 Final Exam Solution 100% Correct Answers
1) Northwest Airlines applied mathematical models to determine which customers in its database were currently responsible for most of its profitability and which customers were not currently profitable but had similar characteristics to the most profitable customers. Northwest Airlines utilized _____ to identify these customers.
A. computer programming
B. data warehousing
C. customer relationships management
D. data mining
2) Minute Maid sees research as the fundamental first step in any business decision, and it created proprietary methods for conducting research. At what level of the hierarchy of business decision makers does Minute Maid operate?
A. Top tier
B.Middle tier
C. Base tier
D. Foundation tier
3) Which of the following questions is considered first when discussing a management dilemma?
A. How can management eliminate negative symptoms?
B. What does the manager need to know to choose the best alternative from the available sources of action?
C. What is the recommended course of action?
D. What symptoms cause management concern?
4) The goal of ethics in research is to _____.
A. ensure that no one is harmed
B. protect researchers from legal liability
C. identify what behavior is appropriate
D. ensure research sponsors fulfill their legal obligations
5) _____ occurs when the participants are told only part of the truth or when the truth is fully compromised.
A. Coercion
B. Deception
C. Informed consent
D. Debriefing
6) The process of stating the basic dilemma and then developing other questions by progressively breaking down the original question into more specific ones is called the _____.
A. research question
B. management-research question hierarchy
C. management dilemma
D. management question
7) The fundamental weakness in the research process is _____.
A. incorrectly defining the research question
B. identifying a flawed sampling frame
C. misdefining the target population
D. failing to identify all relevant secondary information
8) Which type of management question asks what do we want to achieve?
A. Choice of purpose
B. Evaluation of solutions
C. Troubleshooting
D. Control
9) In the Southeast, the potato chip market share held by the Lays brand is 46%. This is an example of _____.
A. a research question
B. a descriptive hypothesis
C. a relational hypothesis
D. an explanatory hypothesis
10) An increase in hours of television viewing leads to increases in the sales of snack foods. This is an example of a _____.
A. research question
B. descriptive hypothesis
C. correlational hypothesis
D. causal hypothesis
11) To be categorized as a customer, an individual must have a history of shopping at the establishment at least twice before the start of the study with expenditures of more than $10. This is an example of _____.
A. a hypothetical construct
B. a conceptual scheme
C. an operational definition
D. a dictionary definition
12) James is entering data on client gender. Because the values entered reflect male or female, this variable is _____.
A. discrete
B. dichotomous
C. continuous
D. ratio-scaled
13) Which variable in an experiment is the variable expected to be affected by the manipulation?
A. Dependent variable
B. Extraneous variable
C. Moderating variable
D. Independent variable
14) Qualitative research seeks to _____ theory while quantitative research _____ it.
A. examine; interprets
B. build; tests
C. test; understands
D. apply; builds
15) Which of the following is true of quantitative research?
A. It uses a nonprobability sampling method
B. Results are generalizable
C. Data analysis is ongoing during the project
D. Sample sizes are generally small
16) The use of a control group in experimentation _____.
A. provides for the manipulation of the independent variable
B. serves as a comparison to assess the manipulation
C. minimizes the cost of experimentation
D. allows for discovery of the average effect of the independent variable in different situations
17) What is the first step in conducting an experiment?
A. Specify the level(s) of the treatment
B. Choose the experimental design
C. Control the experimental environment
D. Select relevant variables
18) Data originating from studies that are conducted by others and created for a purpose different from the purpose of the study for which the data are being reviewed are called _____ data
A. primary
B. secondary
C. quantitative
D. statistical
19) The goal of a formal study is to _____.
A. discover future research tasks
B. expand understanding of a topic
C. test hypotheses
D. provide insight
20) A _____ scale is a scale that scores an object or property without making a direct comparison to another object or property.
A. ranking
B. rating
C. categorization
D. sorting
21) What type of data is produced by simple category scales?
A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Ratio
22) _____ is the extent to which a measurement tool actually measures what we wish to measure.
A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Practicality
D. Significance
23) The list of elements in a population from which the sample is drawn is known as the _____.
A. sampling frame
B. population extent
C. database
D. sampling base
24) The process of ensuring the accuracy of data and their conversion from raw form into classified forms appropriate for analysis is called _____.
A. coding
B. data entry
C. data preparation
D. data measurement
25) _____ involves assigning numbers or other symbols to answers so that the responses can be grouped into a limited number of categories
A. Editing
B. Data entry
C. Coding
D. Measurement
26) The standard error of the estimate is a type of measure of _____.
A. central tendency
B. accuracy
C. significance
D. standard deviation
27) _____ are summary descriptors of variables of interest in the population
A. Sample statistics
B. Population parameters
C. Systematic estimates
D. Standard errors
28) The measure of deviation from the mean such that cases stretch toward one tail or the other is called _____.
A. kurtosis
B. platykurtic
C. skewness
D. ku
29) Which of the research questions/hypotheses below is best answered using cross-tabulations?
A. What percentage of men and women prefer Brand A over Brand B?
B. What percentage of residents shop at the local grocery store?
C. Is brand loyalty related to brand image?
D. What happens to sales when prices drop?
30) If a difference is not caused only by random sampling fluctuations, it is said to have _____.
A. resistance
B. statistical significance
C. substantive significance
D. reasonable doubt
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[order_calculator]1) Which one of the following items is not generally used in preparing a statement of cash flows?
A. Adjusted trial balance
B. Comparative balance sheets C. Additional information D. Current income statement
2) One of Astro Company’s activity cost pools is machine setups, with estimated overhead of $150,000. Astro produces sparklers (400 setups) and lighters (600 setups). How much of the machine setup cost pool should be assigned to sparklers?
A. $150,000 B. $60,000 C. $90,000 D. $75,000
3) Of the following companies, which one would not likely employ the specific identification method for inventory costing?
A. Music store specializing in organ sales B. Antique shop C. Farm implement dealership D. Hardware store
4) Which one of the following is a product cost?
A. Indirect labor B. Sales person’s salaries C. Office salaries D. Advertising costs
5) The conceptual framework developed by the Financial Accounting Standards Board __________.
A. was approved by a vote of all accountants B. is viewed as providing a constitution for setting accounting standards for financial reporting
C. are rules that all accountants must follow D. is legally binding on all accountants
6) What is the preparation of reports for each level of responsibility in the company’s organization chart called?
A. Static reporting B. Exception reporting C. Responsibility reporting D. Master budgeting analysis
7) The cost principle requires that when assets are acquired, they be recorded at __________.
A. appraisal value B. selling price C. exchange price paid D. list price
8) If a company reports a net loss, it __________.
A. will not be able to make capital expenditures B. will not be able to get a loan C. may still have a net increase in cash D. will not be able to pay cash dividends
9) The major reporting standard for management accounts is __________.
A. generally accepted accounting principles B. relevance to decisions C. the Standards of Ethical Conduct for Practitioners of Management Accounting and Financial Management
D. the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002
10) The primary purpose of the statement of cash flows is to __________.
A. facilitate banking relationships B. provide information about the cash receipts and cash payments during a period
C. provide information about the investing and financing activities during a period
D. prove that revenues exceed expenses if there is a net income
11) Managerial accounting __________.
A. places emphasis on special-purpose information B. pertains to the entity as a whole and is highly aggregated C. is concerned with costing products D. is governed by generally accepted accounting principles
12) A well-designed activity-based costing system starts with __________.
A. analyzing the activities performed to manufacture a product B. assigning manufacturing overhead costs for each activity cost pool to products
C. identifying the activity-cost pools D. computing the activity-based overhead rate
13) Balance sheet accounts are considered to be __________.
A. nominal accounts B. capital accounts C. temporary stockholders’ accounts D. permanent accounts
14) As Plant Controller, you are trying to determine which costs over which you have the most control on a day to day basis. Your goal is to achieve better profitability. The Plant Operations Manager suggests that overhead is the easiest area to directly reduce costs. Which of the following items would be classified as manufacturing overhead?
A. Cost of landscaping the corporate office B. The western division’s vice president’s salary C. General corporate liability insurance D. Factory janitor
15) There are two types of markets in which firms face some competition yet are still able to have some control over the prices of their products. The names given to these market structures are __________.
A. perfect competition and monopolistic competition B. duopoly and imperfect competition C. duopoly and triopoly D. monopolistic competition and oligopoly
16) Lekeisha’s income exceeds her expenditures. Lekeisha is a __________.
A. borrower who demands money from the financial system B. borrower who supplies money to the financial system C. saver who supplies money to the financial system D. saver who demands money from the financial system
17) A tax on an imported good is called a __________.
A. supply tax B. trade tax C. tariff D. quota
18) Lucy starts her own psychiatric practice, but her expenditures to open the practice exceed her income. Lucy is a __________.
A. borrower who demands money from the financial system B. borrower who supplies money to the financial system C. saver who supplies money to the financial system D. saver who demands money from the financial system
19) One characteristic of an oligopoly market structure is:
A. firms in the industry have some degree of market power. B. firms in the industry are typically characterized by very diverse product lines. C. the actions of one seller have no impact on the profitability of other sellers. D. products typically sell at a price that reflects their marginal cost of production.
20) When, in a particular market, the law of demand and the law of supply both apply, the imposition of a binding price ceiling in that market causes quantity demanded to be __________.
A. less than quantity supplied B. greater than quantity supplied C. double the quantity supplied D. equal to quantity supplied
21) When a firm sells a good or a service, the sale contributes to the nation’s income __________.
A. only if the buyer of the good or service is a household or another firm B. only if the buyer of the good or service is a household C. We have to know whether the item being sold is a good or a service in order to answer the question
D. whether the buyer of the good or a service is a household, another firm, or the government
22) The open-economy macroeconomic model includes __________.
A. only the market for foreign-currency exchange B. only the market for loanable funds C. neither the market for loanable funds or the market for foreign-currency exchange
D. both the market for loanable funds and the market for foreign-currency exchange
23) Most economists use the aggregate demand and aggregate supply model primarily to analyze __________.
A. the effects of macroeconomic policy on the prices of individual goods B. short-run fluctuations in the economy C. productivity and economic growth D. the long-run effects of international trade policies
24) In the market for foreign-currency exchange in the open economy macroeconomic model, the amount of net capital outflow represents the quantity of dollars __________.
A. supplied for the purpose of buying assets abroad B. supplied for the purpose of selling assets domestically C. demanded for the purpose of importing foreign goods and services D. demanded for the purpose of buying U.S. net exports of goods and services
25) Which of the following is not correct?
A. A potential cost of deficits is that they reduce national saving, thereby reducing growth of the capital stock and output growth.
B. The U.S. debt per-person is large compared with average lifetime income. C. Deficits give people the opportunity to consume at the expense of their children, but they do not require them to do so.
D. In 2005, the U.S. government had a deficit.
26) The Federal Reserve will tend to tighten monetary policy when __________.
A. interest rates are rising too rapidly B. the growth rate of real GDP is quite sluggish C. it thinks the unemployment rate is too high D. it thinks inflation is too high today, or will become too high in the future
27) Which of the following statements about GDP is correct?
A. Nominal GDP values production at current prices, whereas real GDP values production at constant prices.
B. Nominal GDP values production at market prices, whereas real GDP values production at the cost of the resources used in the production process.
C. Nominal GDP values production at constant prices, whereas real GDP values production at current prices.
D. Nominal GDP consistently underestimates the value of production, whereas real GDP consistently overestimates the value of production.
28) The most dominant areas in the global economy include:
A. North America, Western Europe and Asia B. North America, Asia and Africa C. North America, Mexico and Asia D. Western Europe, Asia and Africa E. North America, South America and Western Europe
29) The term used to refer to all kinds of differences including religious affiliation, age, disability status, economic class and lifestyle in addition to gender, race, ethnicity and nationality is:
A. Diversity B. Recruiting C. Employment D. Managerial ethics E. Selection
N
N
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